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I've always been unsure on predeterminism. However, I'm not sure how retrocausality would fit or not fit into any other understanding. I guess to me, it seems entirely independent as a possibly that exists within any other universal framework. How it would be explained or understood may change with larger views, but the occurrence just is something that happens. While I love the idea of retrocausality, I am not current aware of another example outside of the double slit experiment that would validate it. Generally, it seems retrocausality is dismissed for this reason. The argument being that the properties collapse as a result of the observance. The observance being a catalyst, for some reason. To me, that explanation doesn't sound any more rational or provable, so I don't yet understand why it is the dominant theory.